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I've been thinking about something that has been bugging me in a way recently... Over 90% of the Christian fundies that we write about follow a version of "King James bible-only" Protestantism. For them it seems that all of the other bible versions, including the Roman Catholic version are strictly "verbotten". Ok then... So how do they explain the way christians worshipped between the 1st century AD and the years when King James had the version of the bible that shares his name translated, in the early XVIIth century ? I don't know if what I'm asking makes sense? Do the Duggars and others of the same ilk really believe that for at least fifteen hundred years or so no one nowhere worshipped God adequately? Why is the KJ bible the only one that has their God's stamp of approval?
Until moments ago, when I was reading about various strands of KJV only-ism, I was under the misapprehension that Pensacola's weirdness began and ended with PCC. But that is not the case: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peter_Ruckman (not breaking the wikipedia link) ^ This fellow believes that the 1611 KJV "corrected" mistakes in the Hebrew and Greek manuscripts (by magic! we don't need no stinking scholarship!). He also espouses some really repugnant racist stuff, and some entertainingly weird stuff about aliens. Even some fundies find him alarming, partly because of the aliens, partly because he can't seem to stay married to the same spouse, and partly because he uses insulting language. Some sample hand-wringing: wayoflife.org/database/ruckman.html Anyway, Ruckman (I keep wanting to type the last name of our patron saint!) is the pastor of an IFB and the head of a Bible Institute (in the same city as PCC, which suggests he plays poorly with others), and his oddities have been lovingly detailed here. The tract is all kinds of special. thehidalgograincompany.wordpress.com/2010/09/22/the-peculiar-of-pensacola-part-5/
From the Maxwell's blog describing the If/Then Chart they sell, "Scripture Version Note: ALL of the Maxwell books and CDs use the King James Version, but we recently discovered the IF/Then Chart (which we sell but didn't develop) isn't totally KJV. To our customers to whom this would matter, we wanted to let you know that there are four verses that are not KJV. Two of the verses on the If-Then part, one in the header of the chart, and another on the back. When we used the chart, we substituted verses we preferred to use rather than what was provided. We cut out paper the size of the rectangle where the other verse was located, copied our verse onto the paper, and taped it to the chart." First of all, how do people who read a KJV bible every day of their lives just now discover these verses are not KJV? Second, are their customers so dumb that they really need step by step directions on how to cover up a verse on the chart and write in their own? Never mind, don't answer that.
SpeakNow posted a topic in BibleAnyone know why they all think the KJV is the best translation?
I found this... interesting: http://thatoldblackbible.blogspot.com/ Okay, this guy is part of IFBC (and has poor grammar skills for proof), so I understand why he would favor King James Version. But do they really believe that this is the TRUE version? And all other "counterfeits" are of the Devil? This is complete ludicrous to me, and I don't understand the reasoning. 1) King James version is just that- a version. It's translated from Hebrew and Greek. But aren't the other versions too? Not to mention, it's only a couple of hundred-years old. What makes KJ version Divine, and all others inspired by Satan? 2) And I guess asking why the Koran or Torah isn't included under God's word is out of the question. But the Bible? Not even that is God's word. Only the King James version. Anyways, any insight as to why they believe this? Biblical or historical proof? I was just taken aback to know that the Bible I've been reading this whole time is actually the works of the Devil His wife's blog: http://pelkeyphotos.blogspot.com/2012/0 ... d-day.html
I just watched the PP's first sermon (gotta love his hair! ) and I have a question. How do KJV-only people deal with the existance of Bibles in other languages, some of which predate English? I'm sure they have an answer, I just haven't encountered it yet. ZZ speaks English as a third language. Does the PP believe that his wife only came in contact with real Scripture when she learned English and was able to encounter the majesty of the KJV? None of the Hungarian or German Bible study she did before that counted? And what about Hebrew, Koine Greek, and Aramaic?
Why is there such a big thing about being a follower of the King James version vs others? Not being of the faith, Jewish,why is this a big deal? I know I am missing out on the trilogy (Old and new testament plus The Book of Mormon), that is life.
I've had a ton of state mandated training the last couple days. One of the classes I had was on spiritual development. During the class the instructor (who is employed by the same church I work for currently) went on and on about KJV only for bible study (even though the church preaches in NIV). Then at the end she talked all about YEC and the creation museum. Turns out the church I work at is having a conference by the guy from the creation museum - complete with children's activities about dinosaurs. My poor brain can't wrap itself around this. I'm pretty conservative religously and politically, but I'm a theistic evolutionist. This whole situation rubs me the wrong way. Should I go for the snark factor?
I know I have had a few snarky comment about the KJV only Bible. I've snarked about God not speaking in Shakespearean English, and that like all other versions it is just a translation, ect. ect. However I am not to proud to admit I was wrong. All it took for me to see the light was to hear this inspirational number, The King James Bible. It is sung to perfection by two defrauding Godly men. I encourage you all to listen to this masterpiece and see the error of your ways: youtube.com/user/fireballbaptist#p/a/f/0/vUD8XOr-P2A